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Masora

Video introduction on Biblia Hebraica’s apparatus

Here is an excellent intro to the BHS (Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia) by Dr. David Moster of the Institute of Biblical Culture.

Published by the Institute of Biblical Culture (link)

The Software used in the video presentation at 7:07 ~ 8:14 and 11:58 ~ 12:19, and 12:29 ~ 13:29 is Accordance Bible Software.

GENESIS 32:18

Not all printed or electronic Hebrew Bibles ( Mikra / Tanakh) are exactly the same in all details. For example the diacritical symbols used for vowels ( nekuddot) and cantillations marks (ta`amei ha-mikra) can sometimes vary from edition to edition. A good illustration of this is to be found in Genesis 32:18 see the picture below:

Hebrew text screenshot illustrating the Genesis 32:18 example discussed in the article

It should be noted that in the above example there is a slight change in vocalization and in maybe how the text is to be chanted but not in meaning. An interesting discussion on of this can be found in the archives of the Avodah Mailing List: http://www.aishdas.org/avodah/vol08/v08n090.shtml#03

Jeremiah 42:6 אֲנוּ VS אנו

The following widely used texts agree with having אֲנוּ
1)The Jerusalem Crown: Keter Yerushalayim (pg. 467)
(2) The Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia, (pg 867)
(3)Rabbi M. Breuer’s Tanakh( שנט or pg. 359 )
(4) Meïr Halevi (Letteris) Tanakh (pg. 812)
(5) Norman Henry Snaith’s Tanakh (pg. 776)


These five popular editions leave אנו unpointed
(1) C.D. Ginsburg Tanakh (pg. 912)
(2) Koren Tanach (pg. 430)
(3) Adi (A. Dotan) Tanakh (pg. 712)
(4) The Stone Edition of the Tanach (pg. 1172)
(5)The JPS Hebrew-English Tanakh (pg. 1115)


The Westminster Leningrad Codex explicitly marks a Qere/Ketiv distinction at this point: אֲנוּ is the Ketiv (the written form), while אֲנַ֜חְנוּ is the Qere (the traditional reading). TanakhML likewise displays both forms. Thus the difference among editions is not simply a choice between two competing spellings; editions may present the written form, the traditional reading, or both in different ways.

How the accents of the Hebrew Bible can change the meaning?

Does the study of the accents/cantillation marks of the Hebrew Bible aid one in understanding or interpreting the meaning of the text?

Yes, I believe so take Deuteronomy 26:5 for example. Below is an image of the text in Hebrew. Notice that the text of Deuteronomy has been mirrored. The Hebrew consonants’ of both texts colored in black as well as the ‘vowels’ colored in blue are identical. The accents/cantillation marks are colored red. However, to demonstrate how accents can radically change the meaning of the text one accent on the first word (on the right) has been substituted for another:

Hebrew text illustration showing the accent and reading comparison discussed in Deuteronomy 26:5
Disclaimer: Each of the translations above represent only one of the multiple ways each of the parallel lines of text could be understood or translated in English. You may find this reading in the haggadah which in turn was getting this from an interpretation of Mechilta or maybe from Reshi. There are no Bible manuscripts that have this reading. It is just that when you look at a Sefer Torah or any other text without vowel points the verse in question could be, in theory, interpreted this way.

Now, examine how this same verse appears in a Torah scroll the verse appears neither with accents nor with vowel points. So a reader without these Masoretic notations would have had to decide from him or herself how to interpret this verse:

Hebrew text illustration showing the accent and reading comparison discussed in Deuteronomy 26:5

For more on the on the issue mentioned above check out:

https://www.thetorah.com/article/did-an-aramean-try-to-destroy-our-father

https://www.myjewishlearning.com/article/an-aramean-destroyed-my-father/

The above was originally posted back n 2018 on the Logos forums: https://community.logos.com/forums/p/135738/1008148.aspx#1008148

Here I have made a few minor changes and additions.

1 Kings 17:6 a Masoretic issue

It would seem that most (if not all) translators follow the ‘Ktiv Menuqad’ of the ‘Masoretic’ text when attempting to render 1 kings 17:6 into English. In doing so translators have either knowingly or unwittingly accepted the Masoretes’ interpretation of scripture. The text that lay before the Masoretes was probably the ambiguous והערבים . Without, the Neqqudot the word could be read either as ‘ravens’ or ‘Arabs’ depending on its literary context or on the interpreter’s decision. However, the Masoretes who added the Neqqudot had to decide whether to point the word with the ‘patach’ vowel under the letter ‘Ayin’ or a ‘Holam’ above the letter ‘Ayin’. A simple change of even a single vowel point can radically alter the meaning of a word in classical Hebrew and that actually is the only difference between the reading ‘ravens’ or ‘Arabs’. Examine the image below carefully. The vowel points are in red to make it easier to spot the difference between these two readings/vocalizations/interpretations:

https://web.archive.org/web/20190210085506if_/https://adfontes.mitchellbk.com/wp-content/uploads/2016/08/16a743b84c462aab.png

What’s your opinion or take on the above?  In the over all context of the narrative how do you think the word under consideration should be rendered and why?

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